ktet previous question papers category 3 natural science 2018 with solution

KTET Category III – Natural Science 2018

Questions 1–80 with Answers & Solutions

1. An amino acid that is basic in nature is:

(A) Lysine
(B) Valine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Phenylalanine

Answer: (A) Lysine

Solution: Lysine is a basic amino acid because its side chain contains an additional amino group. Other basic amino acids include arginine and histidine.

2. Which one of the following acts as a hormone that regulates blood pressure and blood flow?

(A) Nitric acid
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Hydrogen sulphide

Answer: (B) Nitric oxide

Solution: Nitric oxide (NO) acts as a signalling molecule and causes relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels. This vasodilation helps regulate blood pressure and blood flow.

3. Which one of the following is not excretory in function?

(A) Malpighian tubules
(B) Flame cells
(C) Nephridia
(D) Clitellum

Answer: (D) Clitellum

Solution: Malpighian tubules, flame cells and nephridia are excretory structures in different animals. The clitellum is a reproductive structure in earthworms and other annelids.

4. In C₄ plants, CO₂ fixation initially results in the formation of:

(A) Malic acid
(B) OAA
(C) PEP
(D) PGA

Answer: (B) OAA

Solution: In C₄ plants, CO₂ is initially fixed by PEP carboxylase in mesophyll cells. The first stable product is oxaloacetic acid (OAA), a four-carbon compound.

5. GEAC stands for:

(A) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(B) Genome Engineering Action Committee
(C) Genetic and Engineering Approval Council
(D) Global Environmental Action Council

Answer: (A) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

Solution: GEAC refers to the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, associated with the regulation and approval of genetically modified organisms and related activities in India.

6. Southern hybridization technique is used for the analysis of chromosomal DNA. One among the following is NOT involved in this technique. It is:

(A) Autoradiography
(B) Electrophoresis
(C) PCR
(D) Blotting

Answer: (C) PCR

Solution: Southern blotting involves DNA digestion, electrophoresis, transfer to a membrane, hybridization with a labelled probe and detection, often by autoradiography. PCR is not an essential step of Southern blotting.

7. The breakdown of alveoli that reduces the surface area for gas exchange leads to a disease called:

(A) Asphyxia
(B) Hypoxia
(C) Anorexia
(D) Emphysema

Answer: (D) Emphysema

Solution: Emphysema is a chronic lung condition in which alveolar walls are damaged, reducing the surface area available for efficient gas exchange.

8. The region in which the DNA is wrapped around a cluster of histone proteins is called:

(A) Nucleosome
(B) Mesosome
(C) Desmosome
(D) Centrosome

Answer: (A) Nucleosome

Solution: A nucleosome is the basic structural unit of chromatin. It consists of DNA wrapped around a histone protein core.

9. Human Y chromosome is:

(A) Telocentric
(B) Metacentric
(C) Submetacentric
(D) Acrocentric

Answer: (D) Acrocentric

Solution: The human Y chromosome is classified as an acrocentric chromosome because its centromere is located close to one end, producing a very short p arm.

10. Connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda is:

(A) Limulus
(B) Peripatus
(C) Tubifex
(D) Enterobius

Answer: (B) Peripatus

Solution: Peripatus, or Onychophora, shows characteristics of both annelids and arthropods. Therefore, it is considered a connecting link between the two groups.

11. When there is no consumption of oxygen in respiration, the respiratory quotient will be:

(A) 0.9
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) Infinity

Answer: (D) Infinity

Solution: Respiratory quotient (RQ) = CO₂ evolved / O₂ consumed. If oxygen consumption is zero while CO₂ is produced, the denominator becomes zero, so RQ approaches infinity.

12. A hyperglycemic hormone is:

(A) Thymosin
(B) Insulin
(C) Glucagon
(D) Vasopressin

Answer: (C) Glucagon

Solution: Glucagon is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas. It increases blood glucose concentration by promoting glycogen breakdown and glucose production.

13. Which among the following traits is applicable to monocot stem?

(A) Phloem parenchyma
(B) Interfascicular cambium
(C) Centrifugal xylem
(D) Conjoint collateral closed bundles with sclerenchymatous bundle caps

Answer: (D)

Solution: Monocot stems generally have scattered vascular bundles. The bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed because vascular cambium is absent. They commonly have sclerenchymatous bundle sheaths/caps.

14. Which among the following terminologies are NOT related to pest resistance breeding?

(A) Epiphytotic
(B) Luxuriance
(C) Gene-for-gene hypothesis
(D) Non-preference

Answer: (B) Luxuriance

Solution: Luxuriance refers to vigorous growth or excessive development. It is not a pest-resistance mechanism. Non-preference and the gene-for-gene hypothesis are associated with plant resistance concepts.

15. Among those given below which comes under the vulnerable category of IUCN Red List?

(A) Pigmy hog
(B) Lion tailed monkey
(C) Black Buck
(D) Red panda

Answer: (B) Lion tailed monkey

Solution: The lion-tailed macaque is classified as Endangered, while red panda is Endangered and pigmy hog is also highly threatened. Blackbuck is classified as Least Concern.
Note: This question appears to depend on the historical IUCN classification used when the paper was prepared; the paper’s intended answer is Lion-tailed monkey.

16. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of plants growing in:

(A) Alpine region
(B) Tropics
(C) Temperate climate
(D) Cold winter region

Answer: (B) Tropics

Solution: Diffuse-porous wood has vessels of relatively uniform size distributed throughout the growth ring. It is common in tropical plants where seasonal temperature variation is less pronounced.

17. Fill the blanks with the pool of choices given:

(a) The four pyrrole rings in the porphyrin head are linked by ______.
(b) Carotenoids have ______.
(c) Chlorophyll-b has ______.
(d) Chlorophyll-a has ______.

Choices:

Conjugate double bonds
Formyl (–CHO) group
–CH₃ group
Methene bridges (–CH=)

(A) (4), (1), (2), (3)
(B) (1), (2), (4), (3)
(C) (4), (3), (1), (2)
(D) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Answer: (A)

Solution: The pyrrole rings of porphyrin are linked through methene bridges. Carotenoids contain conjugated double bonds. Chlorophyll-b has a formyl group, whereas chlorophyll-a has a methyl group at the corresponding position.

18. How many chromosomes the primary protonema of Funaria will have, if its leaf has 5 chromosomes?

(A) 5 chromosomes
(B) 10 chromosomes
(C) 15 chromosomes
(D) 20 chromosomes

Answer: (A) 5 chromosomes

Solution: Funaria is a moss. The gametophytic plant body, including the protonema and leafy gametophyte, is haploid. Therefore, if the leaf has 5 chromosomes, the protonema also has 5.

19. Natural selection leads to the evolution of desired traits at which of the following level?

(A) Level of community
(B) Level of species
(C) Level of population
(D) Tissue level

Answer: (C) Level of population

Solution: Natural selection acts on variations among individuals within a population. Over generations, favourable variations become more common in the population.

20. The dry schizocarpic fruit developing from a tricarpellary gynoecium and splitting into three one-seeded cocci is:

(A) Cremocarp
(B) Lomentum
(C) Regma
(D) Samara

Answer: (C) Regma

Solution: Regma is a dry schizocarpic fruit that splits into separate one-seeded portions called cocci. It is characteristic of plants such as Euphorbia.

21. Select the genus and order of housefly.

(A) Genus – Musca, Order – Muscidae
(B) Genus – Diptera, Order – Muscidae
(C) Genus – Musca, Order – Diptera
(D) Genus – Diptera, Order – Insecta

Answer: (C) Genus – Musca, Order – Diptera

Solution: The scientific name of the housefly is Musca domestica. Its genus is Musca and it belongs to the order Diptera.

22. Which one of the following is not a clone?

(A) Dolly
(B) CopyCat
(C) Polly
(D) Hinny

Answer: (D) Hinny

Solution: Dolly was a cloned sheep. CopyCat was a cloned cat and Polly was a genetically engineered/cloned sheep. A hinny is a hybrid offspring of a male horse and female donkey, not a clone.

23. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, the sequence of bases in the transcript is:

(A) TAACGTAC
(B) UAAGCUAC
(C) TUCCGTUG
(D) UUUGCUUC

Answer: (B) UAAGCUAC

Solution: During transcription, RNA is complementary to the DNA template strand. A pairs with U, T with A, C with G and G with C.

DNA: ATTCGATG
RNA: UAAGCUAC

24. Yoshinori Ohsumi got Nobel Prize for:

(A) Discovering a novel therapy against malaria
(B) Work on autophagy
(C) Discovering a novel therapy against roundworm infection
(D) Cryo electron microscopy

Answer: (B) Work on autophagy

Solution: Yoshinori Ohsumi received the 2016 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for discoveries concerning the mechanisms of autophagy.

25. Secondary growth does not take place in majority of the living pteridophytes, ______ being an exception.

(A) Adiantum
(B) Equisetum
(C) Isoetes
(D) Pteridium

Answer: (C) Isoetes

Solution: Isoetes is an exceptional living pteridophyte that shows secondary growth through a secondary thickening meristem.

26. Select the correct choice from the following:

(a) Ca — (i) Tea yellow disease
(b) Zn — (ii) Black heart of celery
(c) B — (iii) Brown heart of turnip
(d) Cu — (iv) Khaira disease of rice
(v) Exanthema of Citrus

(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (v)
(B) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(C) (ii), (iv), (v), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

Answer: (A)

Solution: The deficiency symptoms are associated with particular mineral deficiencies. Zinc deficiency causes Khaira disease of rice, while boron deficiency is associated with brown heart and other disorders. The matching in the question leads to option (A).

27. Raphy is a structure seen associated with:

(A) Pollen grain
(B) Ovule
(C) Stamen
(D) Embryosac

Answer: (B) Ovule

Solution: A raphe is a ridge formed on an ovule due to the fusion of the funicle with the body of the ovule. It is therefore associated with the ovule.

28. Select the wrongly matched pair:

(A) Cerebral aqueduct – Canal passes through the mid brain
(B) Corpora quadrigemina – Lobes in the dorsal portion of mid brain
(C) Arachnoid – Inner layer of cranial meninges
(D) Corpus callosum – Connects cerebral hemispheres

Answer: (C)

Solution: The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges. The innermost layer is the pia mater. Therefore, option C is wrongly matched.

29. Which one of the following is an inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals?

(A) Myasthenia gravis
(B) Arthritis
(C) Sprain
(D) Gout

Answer: (D) Gout

Solution: Gout is a metabolic disorder caused by deposition of uric acid crystals in joints, producing inflammation and pain.

30. An example of loose connective tissue is:

(A) Cartilage
(B) Adipose tissue
(C) Tendon
(D) Blood

Answer: (B) Adipose tissue

Solution: Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue. It stores fat and also functions in insulation and energy storage.

31. Natality, a characteristic of population, refers to:

(A) The increase in number of individuals in a population during a given period.
(B) Total number of individuals present per unit area at a given time.
(C) The number of individuals that have come into the habitat during a given period.
(D) The maximum number of individuals of a population that can be sustained indefinitely in a given habitat.

Answer: (A)

Solution: Natality means the birth rate of a population, i.e. the addition of new individuals through reproduction during a given period.

32. Programmed cell death is called:

(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Necrosis
(C) Apoptosis
(D) [Not completely visible in image]

Answer: (C) Apoptosis

Solution: Apoptosis is a genetically regulated process of programmed cell death. It removes unwanted or damaged cells without causing the extensive inflammation associated with necrosis.

33. 70 S ribosomes are seen in:

(A) Bacteria, Centriole, Chloroplast
(B) Chloroplast, Centriole, Mitochondria
(C) Centriole, Mitochondria, Bacteria
(D) Bacteria, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

Answer: (D) Bacteria, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

Solution: Prokaryotic cells contain 70S ribosomes. Mitochondria and chloroplasts also contain 70S ribosomes because of their endosymbiotic origin. Centrioles do not contain ribosomes.

34. Double fertilisation, a unique feature of angiosperms was first observed by:

(A) Camerarius
(B) Hofmeister
(C) S.G. Nawaschin
(D) Strasburger

Answer: (C) S.G. Nawaschin

Solution: Sergey Nawaschin discovered double fertilization in angiosperms in 1898 while studying Lilium and Fritillaria.

35. The largest salivary gland is:

(A) Sublingual
(B) Sub-maxillary
(C) Parotid
(D) Submandibular

Answer: (C) Parotid

Solution: The parotid gland is the largest of the three major pairs of salivary glands. It is located near the ears.

36. A genetic disease caused by frame shift mutation is:

(A) Muscular dystrophy
(B) Albinism
(C) Sickle cell anaemia
(D) [Option not completely visible in image]

Answer: Image text is insufficient to identify the intended option with certainty.

Solution: A frameshift mutation occurs when nucleotides are inserted or deleted in numbers that are not multiples of three, changing the reading frame of the gene. The supplied image cuts off the fourth option, so I would not invent it.

37. Out of the following statements related to osmosis, one is WRONG. Select the WRONG statement:

(A) OP of a solution is equivalent to the pressure which must be exerted upon it to prevent the flow of solvent across a semi-permeable membrane.
(B) OP can be measured in Pascals, Bars or Atmospheres.
(C) OP is numerically equal to Osmotic potential.
(D) Osmotic potential has a positive value and Osmotic pressure has a negative value.

Answer: (D)

Solution: Osmotic pressure is considered positive, whereas osmotic potential is negative. Therefore, statement D reverses their signs and is incorrect.

38. The given diagram indicates steps in the pathway of anaerobic respiration. Identify A, B, C and D.

(A) A–NAD⁺, B–Ethanol, C–Lactic Acid, D–PEP
(B) A–NAD⁺, B–Lactic Acid, C–PEP, D–Ethanol
(C) A–Lactic Acid, B–Glucose, C–Ethanol, D–PEP
(D) A–NAD⁺, B–DHAP, C–Lactic acid, D–PEP

Answer: (A)

Solution: During glycolysis, NAD⁺ accepts hydrogen/electrons and becomes NADH. Pyruvate can subsequently undergo fermentation to form ethanol or lactic acid. PEP is an intermediate before pyruvate formation. Thus the intended combination is A.

39. In most higher plants, ammonia is assimilated primarily into ______.

(A) Alpha-Ketoglutaric acid
(B) Glutamic acid
(C) Aspartic acid
(D) Asparagine

Answer: (B) Glutamic acid

Solution: Ammonia is incorporated into carbon skeletons, particularly through the GS-GOGAT pathway, ultimately producing glutamate. Glutamate acts as an important amino-group donor for synthesis of other amino acids.

40. In plants, the site of photoperiodic response is:

(A) Bud
(B) Flower
(C) Leaf
(D) Shoot apex

Answer: (C) Leaf

Solution: Leaves perceive photoperiodic signals. The leaf produces signals that influence flowering at the shoot apex.

41. Which among the following statements is NOT applicable to filiform apparatus?

(A) It is a special cellular thickening at the tip of the antipodals.
(B) It guides the pollen tube into synergids.
(C) Useful for absorption and transportation of minerals from the nucellus to embryo-sac.
(D) It helps in the liberation of male gametes from the pollen tube.

Answer: (A)

Solution: The filiform apparatus occurs in the synergids, not at the tip of the antipodal cells. It helps guide the pollen tube and facilitates transfer of substances.

42. One of the following is a carotenoid derivative. Which is that?

(A) ABA
(B) IAA
(C) GA₃
(D) IBA

Answer: (A) ABA

Solution: Abscisic acid (ABA) is a plant hormone derived from carotenoid precursors. IAA and IBA are auxins, while GA₃ is a gibberellin.

43. Dachigam National Park is in:

(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Kashmir
(D) Rajasthan

Answer: (C) Kashmir

Solution: Dachigam National Park is located near Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir. It is particularly famous for the Hangul, or Kashmir stag.

44. Species confined to a particular area and not found anywhere else is called:

(A) Invasive species
(B) Endemic species
(C) Exotic species
(D) Alien species

Answer: (B) Endemic species

Solution: An endemic species is naturally restricted to a particular geographical area and is not naturally found elsewhere.

45. One of the following characters can be represented by floral formula but not by floral diagram.

(A) Position of gynoecium
(B) Aestivation
(C) Placentation
(D) Fusion of stamens

Answer: (A) Position of gynoecium

Solution: Floral formula can represent the position of the ovary/gynoecium through symbols. Floral diagrams mainly provide a graphical representation of floral parts and their arrangement.

46. Father of biodiversity is:

(A) Edward O. Wilson
(B) Ernst Haeckel
(C) Karl Ercky
(D) Charles Elton

Answer: (A) Edward O. Wilson

Solution: Edward O. Wilson was a major contributor to biodiversity studies and is widely known as the “father of biodiversity” in educational contexts.

47. Which one of the following is not a variety of cattle?

(A) Gir
(B) Sahiwal
(C) Vechur
(D) Ancona

Answer: (D) Ancona

Solution: Gir, Sahiwal and Vechur are cattle breeds. Ancona is a breed of chicken, not cattle.

48. Tumors arising from cells in connective tissue, bone or muscle are called:

(A) Sarcoma
(B) Carcinoma
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Myeloma

Answer: (A) Sarcoma

Solution: Sarcomas are malignant tumours arising from connective tissues such as bone, cartilage, muscle, fat and other supporting tissues.

49. Which one of the following is not related to homologous organs?

(A) Doing similar functions
(B) Similar in anatomy
(C) Inherited from a common ancestor
(D) Similar developmental pattern

Answer: (A) Doing similar functions

Solution: Homologous organs have a common evolutionary origin and similar basic structural/developmental plan but may perform different functions. Similar function is characteristic of analogous organs.

50. The larvae of Tremat… are called:

(A) Planulae
(B) Cercariae
(C) Cysticerci
(D) Rediae

Answer: (B) Cercariae

Solution: Cercaria is a free-swimming larval stage in the life cycle of many trematodes. Redia is another larval stage that occurs earlier in the life cycle.

51. An educational software for making simulation in a Biology class:

(A) Geogebra
(B) PhET
(C) Stellarium
(D) Sunclock

Answer: (B) PhET

Solution: PhET provides interactive simulations for teaching and learning science and mathematics. It can be used to demonstrate scientific concepts through simulations.

52. If a test differentiates between good, average and poor students, then it is said to exhibit:

(A) Discrimination
(B) Objectivity
(C) Reliability
(D) Validity

Answer: (A) Discrimination

Solution: A test has discriminatory power when it can distinguish between students with different levels of achievement or ability.

53. Mammals produce milk to feed their babies. Tiger is a mammal, therefore tiger produces milk to feed their babies. The logical basis of the statement is:

(A) Analogy
(B) Deduction
(C) Induction
(D) Improvisation

Answer: (B) Deduction

Solution: Deductive reasoning applies a general rule to a particular case. Here, the general fact about mammals is applied to the specific case of a tiger.

54. Which one is an objective of a criterion reference test?

(A) To classify and grade learners in various categories
(B) To make a comparative decision regarding individuals
(C) To measure individual difference
(D) To measure the effectiveness of a programme or instruction

Answer: (D)

Solution: Criterion-referenced tests measure a learner’s performance against predetermined learning criteria or objectives rather than comparing the learner with other students.

55. While teaching the functioning of human eye the teacher casually compares it with the working of a camera. This is an example for:

(A) Inter correlation
(B) Internal correlation
(C) Incidental correlation
(D) Systematic correlation

Answer: (C) Incidental correlation

Solution: When a teacher makes an informal connection between two related concepts while teaching, it is called incidental correlation.

56. Which of the following does not come under the objectives of affective domain?

(A) Articulation
(B) Organization
(C) Receiving
(D) Valuing

Answer: (A) Articulation

Solution: Receiving, responding, valuing, organization and characterization are levels associated with the affective domain. Articulation is primarily associated with psychomotor learning.

57. NCF 2005 recommended:

(A) One language formula
(B) Two language formula
(C) Three language formula
(D) Four language formula

Answer: (C) Three language formula

Solution: The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) 2005 supported the three-language formula in school education.

58. Which among the following is NOT a feature of ‘MOODLE’?

(A) Limited to small community of users and developers
(B) Online discussion and chat
(C) Random access
(D) Upload and share materials

Answer: (A)

Solution: Moodle is an open-source learning management system designed to support large communities of learners and educators. Online discussion, chat and sharing learning materials are among its features.

59. Which of the following prefers development of values such as respect and concern for others?

(A) Learning to be
(B) Learning to do
(C) Learning to know
(D) Learning to live together

Answer: (D) Learning to live together

Solution: “Learning to live together” emphasizes cooperation, mutual understanding, respect, peaceful coexistence and concern for others.

60. A Biology teacher asks the students to carry out a project to find out the cause of spreading typhoid in their locality. This project comes under:

(A) Consumer type
(B) Drill type
(C) Producer type
(D) Problem type

Answer: (D) Problem type

Solution: The students are investigating a real-life problem and trying to identify its cause. Therefore, it is a problem-oriented project.

61. Which is the first step in problem solving method?

(A) Collecting the relevant data
(B) Formulation of hypothesis
(C) Sensing the problem
(D) Testing hypothesis

Answer: (C) Sensing the problem

Solution: Problem solving begins with identifying or recognizing the problem. After the problem is identified, relevant data can be collected and hypotheses can be formulated and tested.

62. IT@School project was launched in:

(A) 1981
(B) 1991
(C) 2001
(D) 2011

Solution: Kerala’s IT@School project was launched in 2001 to promote the use of information and communication technology in school education.

63. “The curriculum should preserve and transmit the traditions and culture of human race.” Which principle of curriculum is most suited to substantiate this statement?

(A) Forward looking principle
(B) Conservative principle
(C) Creative principle
(D) Motivation principle

Answer: (B) Conservative principle

Solution: The conservative principle emphasizes preserving and transmitting the cultural heritage, traditions and values of society.

64. Head Quarters of NCTE:

(A) Bangalore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) New Delhi
(D) Thiruvananthapuram

Answer: (C) New Delhi

Solution: The headquarters of the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is located in New Delhi.

65. Select a process skill in science:

(A) Classifying
(B) Concluding
(C) Remembering
(D) Responding

Answer: (A) Classifying

Solution: Classifying is an important science process skill. It involves grouping objects or observations according to common characteristics.

66. Which among the following is NOT a function of SCERT?

(A) Conduct NET examination
(B) Execute curricular reforms in school education
(C) Implementation of new educational techniques and methodologies
(D) Organize inservice training programmes for teachers

Answer: (A) Conduct NET examination

Solution: SCERTs are responsible for curriculum development, educational research, teacher training and implementation of educational programmes. Conducting NET examinations is not their normal function.

67. Content analysis is compulsory in:

(a) Lesson plan
(b) Unit plan
(c) Year plan

(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (c)

Solution: Content analysis helps a teacher organize and sequence subject matter. It can therefore be used in lesson planning, unit planning and yearly planning.

68. Which among the following is a 3D learning aid?

(A) Black board
(B) Bulletin board
(C) Diorama
(D) Graph

Answer: (C) Diorama

Solution: A diorama is a three-dimensional model or representation of a scene or object. Blackboard, bulletin board and graph are generally two-dimensional aids.

69. A man with scientific attitude will NOT have:

(A) Curiosity
(B) Intellectual honesty
(C) Open mindedness
(D) Subjectivity

Answer: (D) Subjectivity

Solution: Scientific attitude is characterized by curiosity, objectivity, intellectual honesty, open-mindedness and willingness to examine evidence. Subjectivity is contrary to scientific objectivity.

70. Merits of lecture method:

(a) Covering syllabus slowly.
(b) Easy to execute.
(c) Helpful in introducing a unit.
(d) Time and effort is more.

(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (d)

Answer: (B) (b) and (c)

Solution: The lecture method is relatively easy to organize and can be useful for introducing a new topic or unit. Covering the syllabus slowly and requiring more time and effort are not merits.

71. Fill in the blank according to the McCormack and Yager (1990) model:

Application domain
Attitude domain
______ domain
Process domain
Knowledge domain

(A) Affective domain
(B) Creativity domain
(C) Cognitive domain
(D) Psychomotor domain

Answer: (B) Creativity domain

Solution: The McCormack and Yager model of science education includes domains such as knowledge, process, creativity, attitude and application. Therefore, the missing domain is creativity.

72. The Operating system used in ‘UBUNTU’:

(A) DOS
(B) Linux
(C) Mac
(D) Microsoft Windows

Answer: (B) Linux

Solution: Ubuntu is a Linux-based operating system. It is a popular open-source operating system based on Debian Linux.

73. Select the correct statement:

(A) Curriculum and syllabus are entirely different.
(B) Curriculum and syllabus are the same.
(C) Curriculum includes syllabus.
(D) Syllabus includes curriculum.

Answer: (C) Curriculum includes syllabus

Solution: Curriculum is broader than syllabus. It includes the syllabus as well as learning experiences, objectives, teaching methods, activities and assessment.

74. “Lesson plan is an outline of the important points of a lesson arranged in the order in which they are presented.” This definition is given by:

(A) Carter Victor Good
(B) Carter V Thomas
(C) John Carter
(D) Kevin Carter

Answer: (A) Carter Victor Good

Solution: Carter Victor Good defined a lesson plan as an outline of important points of a lesson arranged in the order in which they are presented.

75. Which of the following is NOT included under Vogel’s criteria for selection of Science text book?

(A) Appearance of the text book
(B) Cost of the book
(C) Presentation of materials
(D) Qualification of the author

Answer: (B) Cost of the book

Solution: Vogel’s criteria focus on educational and academic qualities such as appearance, presentation and suitability of the content/author. Cost is not included as one of the stated criteria.

76. Open source audio editing can be done through:

(A) Audacity
(B) Gimp
(C) Kdenlive
(D) Open shot

Answer: (A) Audacity

Solution: Audacity is free, open-source audio recording and editing software. GIMP is mainly for image editing, while Kdenlive and OpenShot are video-editing applications.

77. “The degree of consistency with which it measures what it is intended to measure.” This quality of the test is:

(A) Objectivity
(B) Reliability
(C) Practicality
(D) Validity

Answer: (D) Validity

Solution: Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. Reliability refers mainly to consistency of measurement.

78. Find out the word pair relation and fill the blank:

Projected aids : Over Head Projector (OHP)
Activity aids : ______

(A) Black board
(B) Chart
(C) Tape recorder
(D) Vivarium

Answer: (D) Vivarium

Solution: A vivarium is a contained environment used for observing living organisms and is considered an activity/experiential teaching aid. The question pairs a type of teaching aid with an example.

79. Select the most appropriate teaching situation on the topic locomotion in fishes:

(A) Chart showing locomotion of fishes
(B) Multimedia presentation showing various phases of locomotion in fishes
(C) Observing fishes in an aquarium/pond
(D) Using working model of locomotion in fishes

Answer: (C) Observing fishes in an aquarium/pond

Solution: Direct observation provides first-hand experience and allows students to observe the actual movement of fish. Hence, it is the most appropriate teaching situation.

80. Which among the following is NOT a pillar of KCF 2007?

(A) Critical pedagogy
(B) Issue based curriculum
(C) Social curriculum
(D) Teacher centred curriculum

Answer: (D) Teacher centred curriculum

Solution: KCF 2007 emphasizes learner-centred and socially relevant approaches. A teacher-centred curriculum is contrary to the learner-centred orientation of the framework.

Quick Answer Key — 1 to 80

No.	Ans.	No.	Ans.	No.	Ans.	No.	Ans.
1	A	21	C	41	A	61	C
2	B	22	D	42	A	62	C
3	D	23	B	43	C	63	B
4	B	24	B	44	B	64	C
5	A	25	C	45	A	65	A
6	C	26	A	46	A	66	A
7	D	27	B	47	D	67	D
8	A	28	C	48	A	68	C
9	D	29	D	49	A	69	D
10	B	30	B	50	B	70	B
11	D	31	A	51	B	71	B
12	C	32	C	52	A	72	B
13	D	33	D	53	B	73	C
14	B	34	C	54	D	74	A
15	B*	35	C	55	C	75	B
16	B	36	—	56	A	76	A
17	A	37	D	57	C	77	D
18	A	38	A	58	A	78	D
19	C	39	B	59	D	79	C
20	C	40	C	60	D	80	D