ktet previous question papers category 3 natural science 2019 with solution
SECTION A – NATURAL SCIENCE
Q1. The first clinical gene therapy was tested in 1990 in the case of:
(A) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(B) Cystic fibrosis
(C) Emphysema
(D) Phenylketonuria
Answer: (A) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Explanation: The first clinical gene therapy trial was conducted in 1990 for ADA deficiency, a genetic disorder associated with severe immune-system dysfunction. A functional ADA gene was introduced into the patient’s immune cells.
Exam Point: First clinical gene therapy → ADA deficiency → 1990
Q2. The vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral, open with endarch protoxylem in:
(A) Dicot stem
(B) Monocot stem
(C) Dicot leaf
(D) Monocot leaf
Answer: (A) Dicot stem
Explanation: Dicot stems have conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundles. They contain cambium between xylem and phloem, allowing secondary growth. The protoxylem is endarch.
Exam Point: Dicot stem → Open vascular bundle; Monocot stem → Closed vascular bundle
Q3. Lungfish is a connecting link between:
(A) Amphibians and birds
(B) Annelids and arthropods
(C) Fishes and amphibians
(D) Arthropods and molluscs
Answer: (C) Fishes and amphibians
Explanation: Lungfish possesses fish-like aquatic characteristics but also has lung-like organs that enable it to breathe atmospheric air. Therefore, in traditional zoological terminology, it is considered a connecting form between fishes and amphibians.
Exam Point: Lungfish → Fish + amphibian-like characters
Q4. Typhoid fever can be confirmed by:
(A) Western Blot
(B) Widal Test
(C) ELISA
(D) Northern Blot
Answer: (B) Widal Test
Explanation: Typhoid is caused by Salmonella Typhi. The traditional serological test associated with typhoid diagnosis is the Widal test, which detects antibodies against Salmonella antigens.
Exam Point: Typhoid → Widal test
Q5. Match the following:
| Hormone | Function |
|---|---|
| (a) IBA | (i) Inhibition of seed germination |
| (b) GA₃ | (ii) Helps to overcome apical dominance |
| (c) Kinetin | (iii) Rooting |
| (d) ABA | (iv) Promotes bolting |
(A) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(D) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
- IBA → Rooting
- GA₃ → Promotes bolting
- Kinetin → Helps overcome apical dominance
- ABA → Inhibits seed germination
Therefore:
a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
Exam Point:
IBA → Root
GA₃ → Bolting
ABA → Dormancy
Q6. During nitrification, ammonia is first oxidized to nitrite. This reaction is facilitated by:
(A) Nitrosomonas
(B) Nitrococcus
(C) Nitrosomonas and/or Nitrococcus
(D) Nitrobacter
Answer: (C) Nitrosomonas and/or Nitrococcus
Explanation: Nitrification occurs in two major steps:
NH₃ → NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻
The first oxidation is associated with ammonia-oxidizing bacteria such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus. Nitrobacter is mainly associated with the second step, nitrite to nitrate.
Exam Point:
Nitrosomonas → Nitrite
Nitrobacter → Nitrate
Q7. Somatostatin is produced by:
(A) Pituitary
(B) Pancreas
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Thymus
Answer: (B) Pancreas
Explanation: In the pancreas, somatostatin is secreted by the delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans. It inhibits the secretion of several hormones, including insulin and glucagon.
Exam Point: Pancreatic δ-cells → Somatostatin
Q8. Adiantum is coming under the class:
(A) Psilopsida
(B) Lycopsida
(C) Sphenopsida
(D) Pteridopsida
Answer: (D) Pteridopsida
Explanation: Adiantum is a fern, commonly called maidenhair fern. Ferns are traditionally placed under Pteridopsida.
Exam Point: Adiantum → Fern → Pteridopsida
Q9. Interkinesis is a stage between:
(A) G₂ and M Phase
(B) Meiosis I and Meiosis II
(C) Telophase and Cytokinesis
(D) Diakinesis and Metaphase
Answer: (B) Meiosis I and Meiosis II
Explanation: Interkinesis is the interval between the two meiotic divisions. Thus:
Meiosis I → Interkinesis → Meiosis II
Normally, DNA replication does not occur during interkinesis.
Exam Point: Interkinesis = between Meiosis I and II
Q10. Which one DOES NOT favour self-pollination and encourages cross-pollination?
(A) Self-incompatibility
(B) Production of bisexual flowers
(C) Non-synchronous pollen release and stigma receptivity
(D) Anther and stigma placed at different positions
Answer: (A) Self-incompatibility
Explanation: Self-incompatibility prevents a plant from successfully fertilizing itself with its own pollen. This encourages pollen transfer from another plant and therefore promotes cross-pollination.
Exam Point: Self-incompatibility → Prevents self-pollination
Q11. The strategy adopted to prevent infection of Meloidogyne incognita in tobacco roots is based on:
(A) Antisense RNA
(B) Bt
(C) DNA hybridization
(D) RNAi
Answer: (D) RNAi
Explanation: RNA interference (RNAi) is used to silence specific genes. In tobacco, RNAi-based technology was used against the root-knot nematode Meloidogyne incognita.
Exam Point: Nematode resistance in tobacco → RNA interference
Q12. Which mechanism brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?
(A) Autogamy
(B) Cleistogamy
(C) Geitonogamy
(D) Xenogamy
Answer: (C) Geitonogamy
Explanation: In geitonogamy, pollen is transferred from one flower to another flower of the same plant. The question’s expected answer is geitonogamy because different flowers can produce different pollen grains.
Exam Point:
Autogamy → Same flower
Geitonogamy → Different flowers of same plant
Xenogamy → Different plants
Q13. Replacement of glutamic acid by valine in haemoglobin causes:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Albinism
Answer: (B) Sickle cell anemia
Explanation: Sickle-cell anemia results from a point mutation in the β-globin gene. It causes the substitution of glutamic acid by valine in the β-chain of haemoglobin.
Exam Point: Glutamic acid → Valine → Sickle-cell anemia
Q14. Identify the set of hormones produced in women particularly during pregnancy:
(A) Human chorionic gonadotropin and estrogen
(B) Relaxin and progesterone
(C) Progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin
(D) Human chorionic gonadotropin and relaxin
Answer: (D) Human chorionic gonadotropin and relaxin
Explanation: hCG is produced during pregnancy by trophoblastic tissue/placenta. Relaxin is also strongly associated with pregnancy and helps prepare the reproductive tract and pelvic region for childbirth.
Exam Point: Pregnancy-associated hormone → hCG
Q15. The function of green plants is:
(A) Excretion
(B) Respiration
(C) Reproduction
(D) Locomotion
Answer: (C) Reproduction
Explanation: Green plants carry out several life processes including respiration, nutrition, growth and reproduction. Among the choices, the paper identifies reproduction.
Exam Point: Plants reproduce through sexual and/or asexual methods.
Q16. The reserve food in Rhodophyceae is:
(A) Starch
(B) Floridean starch
(C) Mannitol
(D) Laminarin
Answer: (B) Floridean starch
Explanation: Red algae, or Rhodophyceae, store reserve food mainly as floridean starch.
Exam Point:
Rhodophyceae → Floridean starch
Phaeophyceae → Laminarin and mannitol
Q17. ______ is a hydrocolloid produced by some Phaeophyceae.
(A) Algin
(B) Carrageen
(C) Cellulose
(D) Starch
Answer: (A) Algin
Explanation: Brown algae (Phaeophyceae) are important sources of algin/alginates, which are hydrocolloids used as thickening and stabilizing agents.
Exam Point: Brown algae → Algin
Q18. Which one of the following is a hermaphrodite?
(A) Leech
(B) Pinworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Hookworm
Answer: (A) Leech
Explanation: A hermaphrodite has both male and female reproductive organs in the same individual. Leeches are hermaphroditic.
Ascaris, pinworm and hookworm are generally dioecious, with separate male and female individuals.
Exam Point: Leech → Hermaphrodite
Q19. The scientist known as “The Darwin of the 20th Century” is:
(A) Ernst Haeckel
(B) Ernst Mayr
(C) Meyerhof
(D) Embden
Answer: (B) Ernst Mayr
Explanation: Ernst Mayr was a major evolutionary biologist who made important contributions to evolutionary theory and species concepts. He is popularly associated with the title “Darwin of the 20th Century.”
Exam Point: Darwin of 20th century → Ernst Mayr
Q20. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is:
(A) Isogamous
(B) Anisogamous
(C) Oogamous
(D) Zoospores
Answer: (C) Oogamous
Explanation: In Volvox, sexual reproduction is oogamous. It involves a large non-motile female gamete (egg) and smaller male gametes.
Exam Point: Volvox → Oogamous reproduction
SECTION B – NATURAL SCIENCE
Q21. The number of microtubules in a centriole is:
(A) Nine triplets
(B) Nine doublets
(C) Six triplets
(D) Six doublets
Answer: (A) Nine triplets
Explanation: A centriole consists of nine peripheral microtubule triplets arranged in a cylindrical structure.
The arrangement is commonly represented as:
9 × 3 = nine triplets
Exam Point: Centriole → 9 triplets
Q22. The correct relationship between the components that determine water potential is:
(A) Ψw = Ψs + Ψp
(B) Ψw = Ψs − Ψp
(C) Ψw = Ψs + Ψg
(D) Ψw = Ψs − Ψg
Answer: (A) Ψw = Ψs + Ψp
Explanation: Water potential is represented by:
Ψw = Ψs + Ψp
where:
- Ψw = Water potential
- Ψs = Solute/solute potential
- Ψp = Pressure potential
The movement of water is generally from a region of higher water potential to lower water potential.
Exam Point: Water potential = Solute potential + Pressure potential
Q23. In pea, the largest petal overlaps the two lateral petals, which in turn overlap the two smallest petals. This type of aestivation is:
(A) Valvate
(B) Vexillary
(C) Imbricate
(D) Twisted
Answer: (B) Vexillary
Explanation: Pea has vexillary aestivation, also called descending imbricate aestivation.
The large standard petal overlaps the lateral wing petals, which overlap the keel petals.
Exam Point: Pea/Bean → Vexillary aestivation
Q24. Shrinking of animal cells is known as:
(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Pyrolysis
(C) Anaphylaxis
(D) Crenation
Answer: (D) Crenation
Explanation: When an animal cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, water leaves the cell by osmosis. The cell shrinks, a condition known as crenation.
Plasmolysis is generally used for shrinkage of the protoplast of a plant cell due to water loss.
Exam Point: Animal cell shrinkage → Crenation
Q25. Which one of the following is a member of the phylum Platyhelminthes?
(A) Roundworm
(B) Filarial worm
(C) Hookworm
(D) Tapeworm
Answer: (D) Tapeworm
Explanation: Tapeworm belongs to Platyhelminthes, specifically class Cestoda.
Roundworm, filarial worm and hookworm belong to Nematoda.
Exam Point:
Tapeworm → Platyhelminthes
Roundworm → Nematoda
Q26. YAC is:
(A) Yeast Artificial Cell
(B) Yeast Amplified Cell
(C) Yeast Artificial Chromosome
(D) Yeast Amplified Chromosome
Answer: (C) Yeast Artificial Chromosome
Explanation: YAC stands for Yeast Artificial Chromosome. It is a cloning vector capable of carrying relatively large DNA fragments and is based on components that allow replication in yeast.
Exam Point: YAC → Yeast Artificial Chromosome
Q27. Biofortification refers to:
(A) Active uptake of minerals by plants
(B) Breeding of crops for improved nutritional quality
(C) Crop production by conventional methods
(D) Reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living organisms
Answer: (B) Breeding of crops for improved nutritional quality
Explanation: Biofortification aims to improve the nutritional quality of crops, for example by increasing levels of vitamins, minerals, proteins or other beneficial nutrients.
Exam Point: Biofortification → Nutritionally improved crops
Q28. Brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins in leaves occur due to toxicity of:
(A) Mg
(B) Mn
(C) Mo
(D) Zn
Answer: (B) Mn
Explanation: Excess manganese (Mn) can produce toxicity symptoms such as brown spots and chlorotic regions in leaves.
Exam Point: Excess Mn → Brown spots/chlorosis
Q29. Choose the INCORRECT statement related to facilitated diffusion in plants.
(A) Requires special membrane proteins
(B) It is highly selective
(C) Requires ATP energy
(D) Transport rate reaches saturation
Answer: (C) Requires ATP energy
Explanation: Facilitated diffusion is a passive transport mechanism. It uses membrane proteins such as channels or carriers but does not directly require ATP.
Because transport proteins are limited in number, the transport rate can reach saturation.
Exam Point: Facilitated diffusion → Protein-mediated but ATP-independent
Q30. Arrange the following in correct sequential order:
- Pollen grains
- Sporogenous tissue
- Microspore tetrad
- Pollen mother cell
- Male gametes
(A) Pollen grains → Sporogenous tissue → Microspore tetrad → Pollen mother cell → Male gametes
(B) Sporogenous tissue → Pollen mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Pollen grains → Male gametes
(C) Sporogenous tissue → Pollen grains → Pollen mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Male gametes
(D) Pollen grains → Pollen mother cell → Sporogenous tissue → Microspore tetrad → Male gametes
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The developmental sequence is:
Sporogenous tissue → Pollen mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Pollen grains → Male gametes
Pollen mother cells undergo meiosis and form microspore tetrads. Microspores develop into pollen grains, which later form male gametes.
Exam Point: Remember the sequence:
Sporogenous → PMC → Tetrad → Pollen → Male gametes
Q31. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is called:
(A) Expiratory Capacity
(B) Inspiratory Capacity
(C) Residual Volume
(D) Vital Capacity
Answer: (D) Vital Capacity
Explanation: Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be expelled after taking the deepest possible inspiration.
It consists of:
Vital Capacity = Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume
Exam Point: Maximum air that can be expelled after maximum inspiration → Vital Capacity
Q32. The plant source of colchicine belongs to family:
(A) Malvaceae
(B) Solanaceae
(C) Leguminosae
(D) Liliaceae
Answer: (D) Liliaceae
Explanation: Colchicine is obtained from Colchicum autumnale, traditionally placed under Liliaceae.
Colchicine is an alkaloid that interferes with spindle formation and is used in chromosome studies and polyploidy induction.
Exam Point: Colchicine source → Colchicum → Liliaceae
Q33. The liver does not produce:
(A) Albumin
(B) Gamma globulin
(C) Fibrinogen
(D) Prothrombin
Answer: (B) Gamma globulin
Explanation: The liver synthesizes many plasma proteins, including:
- Albumin
- Fibrinogen
- Prothrombin
Gamma globulins are mainly associated with immunoglobulins produced by plasma cells.
Exam Point: Liver → Albumin + clotting proteins; antibodies → Plasma cells
Q34. Which is NOT TRUE regarding restriction endonucleases?
(A) They were named using the genus and species of the organism from which they were isolated.
(B) They function by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(C) They add methyl groups to DNA.
(D) They recognize a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in DNA.
Answer: (C) They add methyl groups to DNA
Explanation: Restriction endonucleases recognize specific DNA sequences, often palindromic sequences, and cut DNA at or near these sites.
DNA methylation is performed by DNA methyltransferases, not restriction endonucleases.
Exam Point: Restriction enzyme → Recognize + cut DNA
Q35. In human karyotype, group G includes the chromosomes:
(A) 19, 20
(B) 20, 21
(C) 21, 22
(D) 18, 19
Answer: (C) 21, 22
Explanation: In the traditional Denver classification, group G contains chromosomes 21 and 22, along with the Y chromosome.
Exam Point: Group G → 21, 22 + Y
Q36. Thrombocytes are involved in:
(A) Coagulation of blood
(B) Immune responses
(C) Osmotic balance
(D) Inflammatory reactions
Answer: (A) Coagulation of blood
Explanation: Thrombocytes, commonly called platelets, play a major role in blood clot formation.
They gather at the site of blood vessel injury and participate in the clotting process.
Exam Point: Thrombocytes = Platelets → Blood clotting
Q37. The primary CO₂ acceptor in Hatch and Slack pathway is:
(A) OAA
(B) PEP
(C) PGA
(D) RuBP
Answer: (B) PEP
Explanation: The Hatch-Slack pathway is the C₄ pathway of carbon fixation.
The primary CO₂ acceptor in mesophyll cells is:
Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
PEP combines with CO₂ to form oxaloacetate.
Exam Point: C₄ pathway → Primary CO₂ acceptor = PEP
Q38. The upright pyramid of number cannot be seen with ______ ecosystem.
(A) Lake
(B) Grassland
(C) Pond
(D) Forest
Answer: (B) Grassland
Explanation: A pyramid of numbers represents the number of organisms at different trophic levels. The question identifies grassland as the ecosystem that does not show the specified upright pattern.
Exam Point: Pyramid of numbers → Number of organisms at each trophic level.
Q39. Which is NOT a characteristic of xylem tracheids?
(A) They are long cylindrical tube-like cells
(B) They are dead without protoplasm
(C) Their inner cell walls have various types of thickening
(D) They are water-transporting elements
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Tracheids are elongated, dead xylem cells with lignified walls. They conduct water and minerals and possess different wall-thickening patterns.
The description in option A is more characteristic of vessel elements, which are tube-like and form continuous vessels.
Exam Point: Tracheids → Dead, elongated, lignified, water conducting.
Q40. ‘Kalyan Sona’ and ‘Sonalika’, high-yielding and disease-resistant wheat varieties, were the outcome of:
(A) Introduction
(B) Selection
(C) Interspecific hybridization
(D) Distant hybridization
Answer: (C) Interspecific hybridization
Explanation: Improved wheat varieties such as Kalyan Sona and Sonalika were developed through hybridization-based crop improvement involving genetically different wheat material.
Exam Point: Kalyan Sona and Sonalika → Improved wheat varieties.
Q41. Polymer of fructose is:
(A) Inulin
(B) Codon
(C) Gluten
(D) Lecithin
Answer: (A) Inulin
Explanation: Inulin is a polysaccharide composed mainly of fructose units.
It occurs as a storage carbohydrate in several plants.
Exam Point: Fructose polymer → Inulin
Q42. Podocytes are seen in:
(A) Alveoli
(B) Stomach
(C) Bowman’s capsule
(D) Liver
Answer: (C) Bowman’s capsule
Explanation: Podocytes are highly specialized cells forming the visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule in the nephron.
Their extensions, called foot processes, help form the filtration barrier of the renal corpuscle.
Exam Point: Podocytes → Bowman’s capsule
Q43. Which is the primary CO₂ fixation product in C₄ plants?
(A) OAA
(B) PEP
(C) PGA
(D) RuBP
Answer: (A) OAA
Explanation: In C₄ plants, CO₂ is initially fixed by PEP carboxylase.
PEP + CO₂ → Oxaloacetate (OAA)
Therefore, OAA is the first stable product of C₄ carbon fixation.
Exam Point: C₄ first stable product → OAA
Q44. Mule is:
(A) Inbreed
(B) Interspecific hybrid
(C) Intergeneric hybrid
(D) Cross-breed
Answer: (B) Interspecific hybrid
Explanation: A mule is produced by crossing a male donkey and a female horse.
Horse and donkey belong to the same genus (Equus) but are different species. Therefore, the mule is an interspecific hybrid.
Exam Point: Mule → Horse × Donkey → Interspecific hybrid
Q45. The primary lymphoid organs are:
(A) Thymus and liver
(B) Thymus and spleen
(C) Bone marrow and thymus
(D) Spleen and bone marrow
Answer: (C) Bone marrow and thymus
Explanation: Primary lymphoid organs are the sites where lymphocytes develop and mature.
They are:
- Bone marrow
- Thymus
The spleen and lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs.
Exam Point: Primary lymphoid organs → Bone marrow + Thymus
Q46. The forebrain consists of:
(A) Cerebrum, Pons, Thalamus
(B) Cerebrum, Hypothalamus, Medulla oblongata
(C) Cerebrum, Pons, Hypothalamus
(D) Cerebrum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus
Answer: (D) Cerebrum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus
Explanation: The forebrain includes the cerebrum and structures of the diencephalon, particularly the thalamus and hypothalamus.
Pons and medulla are parts of the brainstem/hindbrain region.
Exam Point: Forebrain → Cerebrum + Thalamus + Hypothalamus
Q47. Peptide hormone which decreases blood pressure is secreted by:
(A) Atrial wall
(B) Ventricle wall
(C) Bundle of His
(D) Chordae tendinae
Answer: (A) Atrial wall
Explanation: The atrial walls produce Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP).
ANP promotes sodium and water excretion and helps reduce blood volume and blood pressure.
Exam Point: Atrial wall → ANP → Decreases blood pressure
Q48. Greenhouse gases include:
(A) CO₂, CO
(B) CO₂, SO₂
(C) CO₂, Methane
(D) Methane, SO₂
Answer: (C) CO₂, Methane
Explanation: Important greenhouse gases include:
- Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
- Methane (CH₄)
- Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
- Water vapour
- Ozone
Therefore, CO₂ and methane are the correct pair.
Exam Point: CO₂ + CH₄ → Major greenhouse gases
Q49. Taq polymerase is isolated from:
(A) Fungus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Mycoplasma
Answer: (B) Bacteria
Explanation: Taq polymerase is obtained from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
It is heat-stable and therefore very useful in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).
Exam Point: Taq polymerase → Thermus aquaticus → Bacterium
Q50. Which plant growth regulator is a terpene derivative?
(A) ABA
(B) Ethylene
(C) GA₃
(D) IAA
Answer: (A) ABA
Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is a terpenoid-derived plant hormone.
It is involved in:
- Seed dormancy
- Stomatal closure
- Stress responses
- Inhibition of growth
Exam Point: ABA → Terpenoid-derived hormone
SECTION C – SCIENCE PEDAGOGY
Q51. Which one is LEAST important in evaluating the quality of a science text?
(A) Modern illustrations
(B) Publishers
(C) Presentation of materials
(D) Scientific correlations
Answer: (B) Publishers
Explanation: The quality of a science textbook should be evaluated mainly on scientific accuracy, presentation, illustrations, relevance and relationships among scientific concepts. Merely knowing the publisher is less important.
Exam Point: Textbook evaluation → Content quality + scientific accuracy + presentation
Q52. Year plan includes:
(A) Concepts
(B) Evaluation tools
(C) Learning experience
(D) Objectives
Answer: (D) Objectives
Explanation: A year plan provides an overall framework for teaching throughout the academic year. It includes broad objectives and the expected learning outcomes.
Exam Point: Year plan → Long-term objectives
Q53. A teacher’s ‘mental and emotional visualizations of classroom activities’ is:
(A) Resource unit
(B) Lesson plan
(C) Unit plan
(D) Year plan
Answer: (B) Lesson plan
Explanation: A lesson plan is a systematic plan prepared by the teacher for classroom teaching. It includes learning objectives, content, activities, teaching methods and evaluation.
Exam Point: One lesson → Lesson plan
Q54. The curricular approach which indicates continuity and linkage between successive years is:
(A) Spiral
(B) Interdisciplinary
(C) Topical
(D) Unit
Answer: (A) Spiral
Explanation: In a spiral curriculum, important concepts are revisited repeatedly at progressively higher levels of complexity.
Thus, there is continuity and linkage from one year to another.
Exam Point: Spiral curriculum → Revisit + expand concepts
Q55. Which of the following is NOT seen in a science library?
(A) Science Dictionaries
(B) Science Encyclopaedia
(C) Science Equipments
(D) Science Manuals
Answer: (C) Science Equipments
Explanation: Dictionaries, encyclopaedias and manuals are information resources found in a library. Science equipment belongs primarily to the science laboratory.
Exam Point: Library → Books/reference materials; Laboratory → Equipment.
Q56. “Pedagogy of the Oppressed” is the book of:
(A) Howard Gardner
(B) John Dewey
(C) Paulo Freire
(D) Vygotsky
Answer: (C) Paulo Freire
Explanation: Paulo Freire wrote Pedagogy of the Oppressed. The book emphasizes critical consciousness, dialogue and education as a means of social transformation.
Exam Point: Pedagogy of the Oppressed → Paulo Freire
Q57. Method of teaching which gives training in listening and taking rapid notes is:
(A) Dalton plan
(B) Lecture method
(C) Project method
(D) Problem method
Answer: (B) Lecture method
Explanation: In the lecture method, students primarily listen to the teacher and organize important information through note-taking. Hence, it provides practice in listening and rapid note-taking.
Exam Point: Lecture method → Listening + note-taking
Q58. A generalized idea of a class of things is:
(A) Attribute
(B) Law
(C) Concept
(D) Theory
Answer: (C) Concept
Explanation: A concept is a generalized mental representation of a class of objects, events or ideas.
For example, “plant” is a concept representing a broad class of living organisms.
Exam Point: Generalized idea → Concept
Q59. Hidden curriculum refers to:
(A) Cognitive objectives
(B) Curriculum objectives
(C) Instructional objectives
(D) Unintended objectives
Answer: (D) Unintended objectives
Explanation: Hidden curriculum refers to values, attitudes, behaviours and social norms learned indirectly through school culture and classroom interactions.
These are not necessarily written in the formal curriculum.
Exam Point: Hidden curriculum → Unintended learning
Q60. Which one is included in the four pillars of education proposed by UNESCO?
(A) Learning to love
(B) Learning to live
(C) Learning to live together
(D) Learning to lead
Answer: (C) Learning to live together
Explanation: UNESCO’s four pillars of education are:
- Learning to know
- Learning to do
- Learning to live together
- Learning to be
Therefore, “Learning to live together” is correct.
Exam Point: Four pillars → Know, Do, Live Together, Be
Q61. A person with scientific attitude is:
(A) Curious
(B) Superstitious
(C) Subjective
(D) Unwilling to change beliefs
Answer: (A) Curious
Explanation: Scientific attitude involves:
- Curiosity
- Open-mindedness
- Objectivity
- Critical thinking
- Willingness to test evidence
- Readiness to modify beliefs based on evidence
Therefore, curiosity is an important scientific attitude.
Exam Point: Scientific attitude → Curious + objective + open-minded
Q62. A model representing a scene with three-dimensional figures showing animals in their natural environment is:
(A) Diorama
(B) Monuments
(C) Still models
(D) Specimens
Answer: (A) Diorama
Explanation: A diorama is a three-dimensional educational model that represents a scene or environment. In science education, it can show animals in their natural habitat.
Exam Point: 3D scene/environment model → Diorama
Q63. Which one is included in the category of domains proposed by McCormack and Yager?
(A) Appreciation
(B) Evaluation
(C) Process
(D) Synthesis
Answer: (A) Appreciation
Explanation: McCormack and Yager proposed domains for science education that include aspects such as knowledge, process, creativity, attitude and application. The question identifies appreciation as the appropriate option.
Exam Point: McCormack & Yager → Science education domains
Q64. The test item which minimizes guess work is:
(A) Essay type
(B) Matching type
(C) Multiple choice
(D) Supply type
Answer: (D) Supply type
Explanation: In a supply-type item, the learner has to produce the answer rather than choose from given alternatives. Therefore, random guessing is reduced.
Examples include:
- Short-answer questions
- Fill-in-the-blanks
Exam Point: Supply-type → Student produces answer
Q65. Teacher’s Handbook includes:
(A) Remedial activities
(B) Diagrams to be labelled
(C) Instructional objectives
(D) Theories of Teaching and Learning
Answer: (C) Instructional objectives
Explanation: A teacher’s handbook provides guidance to teachers about the instructional process, including instructional objectives, teaching activities and related guidance.
Exam Point: Teacher handbook → Teaching guidance + objectives
Q66. Which one is NOT included in a Blueprint?
(A) Weightage to content
(B) Weightage to form of questions
(C) Weightage to time
(D) Weightage to objectives
Answer: (C) Weightage to time
Explanation: A test blueprint specifies the distribution of questions according to:
- Content
- Learning objectives
- Types/forms of questions
The question identifies weightage to time as the item not included.
Exam Point: Blueprint → Content + Objectives + Question form
Q67. An example of projected aid is:
(A) Blackboard
(B) Bulletin board
(C) Flannel board
(D) Smart board
Answer: (D) Smart board
Explanation: A smart board is an electronic display used to present digital educational material. It uses projection/display technology and therefore serves as a projected/digital teaching aid.
Exam Point: Smart board → Modern instructional aid
Q68. Who among the following proposed constructivist theory?
(A) Herbart
(B) Pavlov
(C) Thorndike
(D) Vygotsky
Answer: (D) Vygotsky
Explanation: Lev Vygotsky is strongly associated with social constructivism. He emphasized the role of social interaction, language and cultural context in learning.
His important concept is the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD).
Exam Point: Social constructivism → Vygotsky
Q69. Which body is NOT directly related to in-service programmes for teachers?
(A) DIET
(B) NCTE
(C) NCERT
(D) SCERT
Answer: (A) DIET
Explanation: The supplied question paper identifies DIET as the answer.
Teacher education and professional development involve institutions such as NCTE, NCERT and SCERT at their respective levels.
Exam Point: Remember the bodies involved in teacher education:
NCTE, NCERT, SCERT, DIET
Q70. The approach which emphasizes a single instance from a generalized theory is:
(A) Deductive approach
(B) Direct approach
(C) Enquiry approach
(D) Inductive approach
Answer: (A) Deductive approach
Explanation: Deductive reasoning proceeds from a general principle to a specific instance.
Example:
General rule → Specific case → Conclusion
Inductive reasoning works in the opposite direction:
Specific observations → Generalization.
Exam Point:
General → Specific = Deductive
Specific → General = Inductive
Q71. “Zone of Proximal Development” is:
(A) The area in which one can perform better by himself
(B) The area in which one can achieve later
(C) The area in which one can excel with assistance
(D) The area which is unachievable
Answer: (C) The area in which one can excel with assistance
Explanation: Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is the gap between what a learner can accomplish independently and what the learner can accomplish with guidance or assistance.
The teacher or more capable peer provides scaffolding.
Exam Point: ZPD → What learner can do with assistance
Q72. Which of the following journal is published by NCERT?
(A) Journal of Indian Education
(B) Review of Indian Education
(C) Science for Schools
(D) The Survival
Answer: (C) Science for Schools
Explanation: According to the supplied question paper, the expected answer is Science for Schools.
The question is testing awareness of educational publications associated with NCERT.
Exam Point: NCERT → Educational research, textbooks and journals.
Q73. Which one is NOT a process of scaffolding?
(A) Asking thought-provoking questions
(B) Clearing doubts
(C) Explaining how to do the task
(D) Guiding weak groups
Answer: (B) Clearing doubts
Explanation: Scaffolding is temporary instructional support provided to help learners perform tasks that they cannot yet complete independently.
It may include:
- Asking guiding questions
- Demonstrating a procedure
- Giving hints
- Providing structured guidance
The supplied paper identifies clearing doubts as the answer.
Exam Point: Scaffolding → Temporary support for independent learning
Q74. The chart which shows the developments and relationships of concepts is:
(A) Flow chart
(B) Outline chart
(C) Tree chart
(D) Timeline chart
Answer: (A) Flow chart
Explanation: A flow chart uses boxes and connecting lines/arrows to represent the sequence and relationships of ideas or processes.
Exam Point: Flow chart → Sequence + relationship
Q75. The Heuristic method was coined by:
(A) Helen Parkhurst
(B) H. E. Armstrong
(C) John Dewey
(D) W. H. Kilpatrick
Answer: (B) H. E. Armstrong
Explanation: The heuristic method is associated with British chemist and educationist H. E. Armstrong.
The word heuristic is related to discovery and learning through investigation rather than simply receiving information.
Exam Point: Heuristic method → H. E. Armstrong
Q76. NCERT is:
(A) Natural Council of Educational Research and Training
(B) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(C) Natural Council for Educational Research and Training
(D) National Council for Educational Research and Training
Answer: (D) National Council for Educational Research and Training
Explanation: NCERT stands for:
National Council for Educational Research and Training
It is an important organization involved in school education, curriculum development, educational research, textbooks and teacher education.
Exam Point: NCERT → National Council for Educational Research and Training
Q77. Collaborative learning is based on the principle of:
(A) Group work is better than individual works
(B) Language has a limited role in learning
(C) Learning is self-centered
(D) Peer interaction hinders learning
Answer: (A) Group work is better than individual works
Explanation: Collaborative learning emphasizes learning through interaction, cooperation and group activities.
Learners discuss ideas, solve problems together and learn from their peers.
Exam Point: Collaborative learning → Cooperation + peer interaction + group work
Q78. The expansion of VICTERS is:
(A) Versatile ICT Enabled Resources for Students
(B) Versatile ICT Enabled Resources for Schools
(C) Virtual ICT Enabled Resources for Students
(D) Virtual ICT Enabled Resources for Schools
Answer: (D) Virtual ICT Enabled Resources for Schools
Explanation: The expansion given in the question paper is:
VICTERS = Virtual ICT Enabled Resources for Schools
It refers to an ICT-based educational initiative intended to support school education.
Exam Point: VICTERS → Virtual ICT Enabled Resources for Schools
Q79. Which of the following comes under creativity domain?
(A) Decision making
(B) Exploring human emotions
(C) Integrating scientific process in problem solving
(D) Producing unusual ideas
Answer: (D) Producing unusual ideas
Explanation: Creativity involves generating new, original and unusual ideas.
Important characteristics of creativity include:
- Originality
- Fluency
- Flexibility
- Elaboration
Therefore, producing unusual ideas is directly associated with the creativity domain.
Exam Point: Creativity → Novel + original + unusual ideas
Q80. Which one is NOT true in a constructivist classroom?
(A) Active construction of knowledge
(B) Passive absorption of information
(C) Social learning environment
(D) Students work in groups
Answer: (B) Passive absorption of information
Explanation: Constructivism considers learners to be active participants in constructing knowledge.
A constructivist classroom generally emphasizes:
- Active learning
- Discussion
- Collaboration
- Problem solving
- Prior knowledge
- Social interaction
- Student participation
Therefore, passive absorption of information is not consistent with constructivism.
Exam Point: Constructivism → Active learner, not passive receiver
FINAL ANSWER KEY – Q1 TO Q80
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | A | 21 | A | 41 | A | 61 | A |
| 2 | A | 22 | A | 42 | C | 62 | A |
| 3 | C | 23 | B | 43 | A | 63 | A |
| 4 | B | 24 | D | 44 | B | 64 | D |
| 5 | C | 25 | D | 45 | C | 65 | C |
| 6 | C | 26 | C | 46 | D | 66 | C |
| 7 | B | 27 | B | 47 | A | 67 | D |
| 8 | D | 28 | B | 48 | C | 68 | D |
| 9 | B | 29 | C | 49 | B | 69 | A |
| 10 | A | 30 | B | 50 | A | 70 | A |
| 11 | D | 31 | D | 51 | B | 71 | C |
| 12 | C | 32 | D | 52 | D | 72 | C |
| 13 | B | 33 | B | 53 | B | 73 | B |
| 14 | D | 34 | C | 54 | A | 74 | A |
| 15 | C | 35 | C | 55 | C | 75 | B |
| 16 | B | 36 | A | 56 | C | 76 | D |
| 17 | A | 37 | B | 57 | B | 77 | A |
| 18 | A | 38 | B | 58 | C | 78 | D |
| 19 | B | 39 | A | 59 | D | 79 | D |
| 20 | C | 40 | C | 60 | C | 80 | B |
High-Yield Revision Points
- First clinical gene therapy → ADA deficiency
- Dicot stem → Open vascular bundle
- Lungfish → Fishes + amphibians
- Typhoid → Widal test
- IBA → Rooting
- GA₃ → Bolting
- ABA → Seed dormancy
- Red algae → Floridean starch
- Brown algae → Algin
- Leech → Hermaphrodite
- Sickle-cell anemia → Glutamic acid replaced by valine
- Centriole → 9 triplets
- Water potential → Ψw = Ψs + Ψp
- Pea → Vexillary aestivation
- Animal-cell shrinkage → Crenation
- Tapeworm → Platyhelminthes
- YAC → Yeast Artificial Chromosome
- C₄ primary CO₂ acceptor → PEP
- C₄ first stable product → OAA
- Taq polymerase → Thermus aquaticus
- Primary lymphoid organs → Bone marrow + thymus
- ANP → Atrial wall
- Greenhouse gases → CO₂ + CH₄
- Hidden curriculum → Unintended learning
- Pedagogy of the Oppressed → Paulo Freire
- Spiral curriculum → Continuity across years
- Scientific attitude → Curiosity
- Diorama → 3-D environmental scene
- ZPD → Learning with assistance
- Heuristic method → H. E. Armstrong
- NCERT → National Council for Educational Research and Training
- Constructivism → Active construction of knowledge